This post is for the candidates who are beginning to prepare for the exam. It includes some tips to prepare each section of the IBPS exam 2013-14 and some important model questions from each section. This will be a helping hand while preparing for the IBPS clerk and probationary officer exam 2013.

If you are eager to know about the IBPS exam dates, here is the full details of expected date of next IBPS exam.

To know exactly whether you are eligible or not for the IBPS recruitment, you can check the Eligibility for IBPS exam 2013-14.

Tips And Model Questions For Preparing Each Section Of IBPS Exam 2013-14
IBPS clerks and probationary officer objective type exam contains 5 sections which includes quantitative aptitude, reasoning, English language, general awareness and the computer knowledge. Tips for cracking these sections and IBPS question papers are given below.
  • Quantitative Aptitude
Quantitative aptitude section contains the basic mathematical questions. Before exercising such questions it is better to study the mathematical tricks and easy ways to solve the problems. After completing this step try to practice as many questions as possible because you can become expert in this section only when you deal with more number of questions. Try to by heart the multiplication table up to 30 and try to redo the difficult questions more than one time.
  • Reasoning
Reasoning is a test of our observing power and mental ability. When answering such type of questions extra concentration is much needed to pick the right answer. Deal with maximum number of problems especially with problem figures and mirror images.
  • English Language
One of the better way to improve the knowledge in English language is by reading the daily newspaper and by reading some books. Try to study at least 10 new words every day along with its synonyms and antonyms. Watch the daily English news in television so that you can improve both your English language ability as well as the knowledge about the current affairs.
  • General Awareness
General knowledge can only be achieved by reading books, newspapers and watching TV news. Try to study the history and geography of India and the current affairs in India. You should be keen about each and every change around the world and the scientific factors. Try to study the budget and the new budget declarations of central government.
  • Computer Knowledge
Usually only basic questions are asked in these section. This includes the hardware and software section of computer and some networking questions. The only way to achieve the computer knowledge is by reading the computer knowledge books. Daily interaction with computer will give you an additional advantage while attending the computer knowledge section.
Hope you catch the tips for preparing IBPS exam and here is some model question papers for each section to work out.
Quantitative aptitude question paper for IBPS exam 2013-14

Quantitative Aptitude Questions

1 (95.6x 910.3) ÷ 92.56256 = 9?
(A) 13.14
(B) 12.96
(C) 12.43
(D) 13.34
(E) None of these
2. (4 86%of 6500) ÷ 36 =?
(A) 867.8
(B) 792.31
(C) 877.5
(D) 799.83
(E) None of these
3. (12.11)2 + (?)2 = 732.2921
(A) 20.2
(B) 24.2
(C) 23.1
(D) 19.2
(E) None of these
4.576÷ ? X114=8208
(A) 8
(B) 7
(C) 6
(D) 9
(E) None of these
5. (1024—263—233)÷(986—764— 156) =?
(A) 9
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
(E) None of these
6.? 125÷5x ?=6265
(A) 1253
(B) 1250
(C) 1245
(D) 1550
(E) None of these
7. (42)2÷6.3 x 26 =?
(A) 7182
(B) 7269
(C) 7260
(D) 7240
(E) None of these
8. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 4:5 respectively. If the sum of the first and third numbers is more than the second number by 52, then Which will be the largest number?
(A) 65
(B) 52
(C) 79
(D) 63
(E) None of these
9. The compound interest on a certain amount for 2 years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. is Rs.312. What will be the simple interest on the same amount and at the same rate and same time?
(A)Rs. 349.92
(B) Rs. 300
(C)Rs. 358.92
(D) Rs. 400
(E) None of these
10. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 7 ems. If the length is decreased by 4 cm. and the breadth is increased by 3 cms., then the area of the new rectangle will be the same as the area of the original rectangle. What will be the perimeter of the original rectangle?
(A) 45 cms.
(B) 40 cems.
(C) 50 cms.
(D) 55 cms.
(E)None of these
11. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number formed by reversing the digits is greater than the original number by 54, then what will be the original number?
(A) 28
(B) 48
(C) 39
(D) 93
(E) None of these
12. In a fraction, twice the numerator is two more than the denominator. If 3 is added to the numerator and the denominator each, then the resultant fraction will be 2/3 .What was the original fraction ?
(A) 5/18
(B) 6/13
(C) 13/6
(D) 7/12
(E) None of these
13. Four-fifth of a number is 10 more than two-third of the same number. What is the number?
(A) 70
(B) 75
(C) 69
(D) 85
(E) None of these
14. A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs. 10 each. However, 5 bulbs were fused and had to be thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs.12 each. What will be the percentage profit?
(A) 25
(B) 15
(C) 13
(D) 17
(E) None of these
15. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the number series given below?
25, 34, 52, 79, 115,?
(A) 160
(B) 140
(C) 153
(D) 190
(E)None of these
16. What number should replace both the question marks (?) in the following question ?

?/144= 49 /?
(A) 95
(B) 76
(C) 82
(D) 84
(E)None of these
17. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 252. What is the sum of the smallest and the largest numbers?
(A) 158
(B) 148
(C) 168
(D) 198
(E) None of these
18. If 13 men can complete a piece of work in 36 days, then in how many days will 18 men complete the same work?
(A) 16 days
(B) 20 days
(C) 26 days
(D) 30 days
(E) None of these
19. If the area of a circle is 75.44 square cm then what is the circumference of the circle?
(A) 29.2 cm
(B) 28.9 cm
(C) 30.8 cm
(D) 40.2 cm
(E) None of these
20. Girish started a business investing Rs. 45,000. After 3 months, Vijay joined him with a capital of Rs. 60,000. After another 6 months, Ankush joined them with a capital of Rs. 90,000. At the end of the year, they made a profit of Rs. 16,500. What is Girish’s share of profit ?
(A) Rs. 5,500
(B) Rs. 6,000
(C) Rs. 6,600
(D) As. 5,900
(E) None of these
21. What is the average age of a family of five members, whose ages are 42, 49, 56, 63 and 35 years respectively?
(A) 60 years
(B) 49 years
(C) 45 years
(D) 58 years
(E) None of these
22. A and B are two taps which can fill a tank individually in 10 minutes and 20 minutes respectively. However, there is a leakage at the bottom which can empty a filled tank in 40 minutes. If the tank is empty initially, how much time will both the taps take to fill the tank (leakage is still there) ?
(A) 8 minutes
(B) 7 minutes
(C) 10 minutes
(D) 15 minutes
(E) None of these
23. What is 50% of 40% of Rs. 3,450?
(A) Rs. 690
(B) As. 520
(C) Rs. 517.5
(D) Rs. 499.2
(E) None of these
24. An urn contains 9 blue, 7 white and 4 black balls. If 2 balls are drawn at random, then what is the probability that only one ball is white?
(A) 71/190
(B) 121/190
(C) 91/190
(D) 93/190
(E) None of these
25. If the price of 5 transistors and 2 pen stands is Rs. 810, then what will be the price of 7 transistors and 9 pen stands?
(A) Rs. 1,320
(B) Rs. 1,500
(C) Rs.1,150
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
26. A train B speeding with 120 kmph crosses another train C running in the same direction, in 2 minutes. If the lengths of the trains B and C be 100 m and 200 m respectively, what is the speed (in kmph) of the train C?
(A) 111
(B) 123
(C) 127
(D) 129
27. River is running at 2 kmph. It took a man twice as long to row up as to row down the river. The rate (in km/hr) of the man in still water is:
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 4
(D) 6
28. A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity (in kg.) sold at 18% profit is:
(A) 560
(B) 600
(C) 400
(D) 640
29. A sum of money becomes Rs. 13, 380 after 3 years and Rs. 20, 070 after 6 years on compound interest. The sum (in Rupees) is:
(A) 8800
(B) 8890
(C) 8920
(D) 9040
30. A well with 14 m inside diameter is dug 10 m deep. Earth taken out of it, has been evenly spread all around it to a width of 21m to form an embankment. The height (in metres) of the embankment is:
(A) 1/2
(B) 2/3
(C) 3/4
(D) 3/5
31. A rectangular carpet has an area of 120 sq metres and a perimeter of 46 metres. The length of its diagonal (in metres) is:
(A) 11
(B) 13
(C) 15
(D) 17
32. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3:4:5 respectively. If the sum of the first and third numbers is more than the second number by 52, then which will be the largest number?
(A) 65
(B) 52
(C) 79
(D) 63
(E) None of these
33. The compound interest on a certain amount for 2 years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. is Rs.312. What will be the simple interest on the same amount and at the same rate and same time?
(A)Rs. 349.92
(B) Rs. 300
(C) Rs. 358.92
(D) Rs. 400
(E) None of these
34. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 7ems. If the length and breadth is decreased by 4cm. and 3 cms, then the area of the new rectangle is same as the area of the original. What will be the perimeter of the original rectangle?
(A) 45 cms.
(B) 40 cms.
(C) 50 cms.
(D) 55 cms.
(E)None of these
35. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number formed by reversing the digits is greater than the original number by 54, then what will be the original number?
(A) 28
(B) 48
(C) 39
(D) 93
(E) None of these
36. In a fraction, twice the numerator is two more than the denominator. If 3 is added to the numerator and the denominator each, then the resultant fraction will be 2/3 .What was the original fraction ?
(A) 5/18
(B) 6/13
(C) 13/6
(D) 7/12
(E) None of these
37. Four-fifth of a number is 10 more than two-third of the same number. What is the number?
(A) 70
(B) 75
(C) 69
(D) 85
(E) None of these
38. A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs. 10 each. However, 5 bulbs were fused and had to be thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs. 12 each. What will be the percentage profit?
(A) 25
(B) 15
(C) 13
(D) 17
(E) None of these
39. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the number series given below?
25, 34, 52, 79, 115,?
(A) 160
(B) 140
(C) 153
(D) 190
(E) None of these
40. ?/144= 49 /?
(A) 95
(B) 76
(C) 82
(D) 84
(E) None of these
41. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 252. What is the sum of the smallest and the largest numbers?
(A) 158
(B) 148
(C) 168
(D) 198
(E) None of these
42. Ajay spends 25% of his salary on house rent, 5% on food, 15% on travel, 10% on clothes and the remaining amount of Rs. 27,000 is saved. What is Ajay’s income?
(A) Rs. 60,000
(B) Rs. 80,500
(C) Rs. 60,700
(D) Rs. 70,500
(E) None of these
43. In how many different ways, can the letters of the word ‘CRISIS’ be arranged ?
(A) 150
(B) 240
(C) 120
(D) 200
(E) None of these
44. At each corner of a square park with side equal to 40 m, there is a flower bed in the form of a sector of radius 14 m. What is the area of the remaining part of the park?
(A)984 Square m
(B) 789 Square m
(C) 1014 Square m
(D) 1024 Square m
(E) None of these
45. The length of a rectangular field is thrice its breadth. If the cost of cultivating the field at Rs. 367.20 per square meter is Rs. 27,540, then what is the perimeter of the rectangle?
(A)47m
(B) 39m
(C)52m
(D)40m
(E) None of these
46. If the fractions8/5, 7/2, 9/5, 5/4, 4/5 are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be fourth?
(A) 4/5
(B) 5/4
(C) 9/5
(D) 8/5
(E) 7/2
47. The present ages of Chetna and Shikha are in the ratio of 5:7 respectively. After 7 years, their ages will be in the ratio of 11:14 respectively. What is the difference between their ages?
(A) 9 years
(B) 4 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 7 years
(E) None of these
48. If 13 men can complete a piece of work in 36 days, then in how many days will 18 men complete the same work?
(A) 16 days
(B) 20 days
(C) 26 days
(D) 30 days
(E) None of these
49. If the area of a circle is 75.44 square cm then what is the circumference of the circle?
(A) 29.2 cm
(B) 28.9 cm
(C) 30.8 cm
(D) 40.2 cm
(E) None of these
50. Girish started a business investing Rs. 45,000. After 3 months, Vijay with Rs. 60,000 and After another 6 months, Ankush with Rs. 90,000 joined him. At the end of the year, they made a profit of Rs. 16,500. What is Girish’s share of profit?
(A) Rs. 5,500
(B) Rs. 6,000
(C) Rs. 6,600
(D) As. 5,900
(E) None of these
Answers
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. E 8. A 9. B 10. C 11. C 12. D 13. B 14. D 15. A 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. A 21. B 22. A 23. A 24. E 25. D 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. B 31. D 32. A 33. B 34. C 35. C 36. D 37. B 38. D 39. A 40. D 41. C 42. A 43. E 44. A 45. D 46. B 47. E 48. C 49. C 50. A

 Reasoning question paper for IBPS exam 2013-14

Reasoning Questions

Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
S M P 6 3 * $ A 4 L N @ Z 5 # V U 7 E 8 B % T Y X G 2 I & 9 W
1. Which of the following is the third to the left of the fifteenth from the left end?
(A) @
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) U
(E) None of these
2. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?
P M 3 A $ L Z @ #?
(A) U V E
(B) V # E
(C) 7 U 8
(D) V 7 #
(E) None of these
3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) A 4 *
(B) T B Y

(C) 9 I W
(D) V 5 U
(E) P S 6
4. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by an even number and preceded by a symbol?
(A) None

(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Read the following passage carefully and answers the questions given below it—
A group of seven friends, A, B, C, D, E, F and G work as Economist, Agriculture Officer, IT Officer, Terminal Operator, Clerk, Forex Officer and Research Analyst, for Banks L, M, N; P, Q, R and S but not necessarily in the same order. C works for Bank N and is neither a Research Analyst nor a Clerk. E is an IT Officer and works for Bank R. A works as Forex Officer and does not work for Bank L or Q. The one who is an Agriculture Officer works for Bank M. The one who works for Bank L works as a Terminal Operator. F works for Bank Q. G works for Bank P as a Research Analyst. D is not an Agriculture Officer.
5. For which Bank does B work?
(A) M
(B) S
(C) L
(D) Either M or S
(E) None of these
6. What is the profession of C?
(A) Terminal operator

(B) Agriculture Officer
(C) Economist
(D) cannot be determined
(E) None of these
7. Who amongst the following works as an Agriculture Officer?

(A) C
(B) B
(C) F
(D) D
(E) None of these
8. Who amongst the following works as a Clerk?

(A) C
(B) B
(C) F
(D) D
(E) None of these
9. For which Bank does D work?

(A) Q
(B) L
(C) N
(D) S
(E) None of these
10. What is the profession of the person who works for Bank S?

(A) Clerk
(B) Agriculture Officer
(C) Terminal Operator
(D) Forex Officer
(E) None of these
11. Which of the following combinations of person, profession and bank is correct?

(A) Forex Officer M
(B) Clerk L
(C) agriculture Officer Q
(D) agriculture Officer S
(E) None of these
12. Rajesh started from point A and Travelled 8kms towards the north to point B, he then turned right and travelled 7 kms to point C, from point C he took the first right and drove 5 kms to point D, he took another right and travelled 7 kms to point E, and finally turned right and traveled for another 3 kms to point F. What is the distance between point F and B?
A.1km
B.2kms
C.3 kms
D. 4 kms
E. none of these
13. Among R, L, T and J each having different weights, T is heavier than only L. R is not heavy as J. who is the heaviest?
A. R
B. J
C. T
D. can’t be determined
E. none of these
14. How many meaning full English words can be formed with the letters STIF starting with F, using each letter only once in each word?
A. None
B. 1
C.2
D.3
E. more than 3
15. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word RELUCTANCE each of which has many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
A. none
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
16. In a certain code FIGHT is coded as GJFIU and WRITE is coded as XSHUF. Then how will JUDGE be coded in the same code?
A. KVCHF
B. HFEKV
C. KVEHF
D. VKCFH
E. KVDHF
17. Four of the following 5 are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A. sugar
B. sand
C. stone
D. lave
E. Rock
18. Which of the following will come in place of the question mark?
AC   BE     DH   ?     KQ
A GL
B FK
C GK
D HL
E HM
19. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the first, seventh and eighth letters of the word SPONTANEOUS, then the second letter from the left is your answer. If no such word can be formed then your answer is x and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is y
A. X
B.T
C. E
D. S
E. Y
20. If 2 is subtracted from each even digit and 1 is added to each odd digit in the number 8567284. Which of the following will be the sum of the third digit from the left and second digit from the right of the new number thus formed?
A.10
B. 8
C. 4
D.6
E.16
21. Smita correctly remembers that last year Diwali was celebrated before November but after May. Sanjay correctly remembers that last year he had Diwali holidays after July. Mohan correctly remembers that the month in which Diwali was celebrated had only 30 days. In which month of the year was Diwali definitely celebrated?
A. July
B. August
C. September
D. October
E. November
Directions 22-26
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below
A E C B % 7 D $ E B 5 C ? 3 D E 9 @ 2 #
22. How many digits are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol?
A.1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
23. how many such pairs of alphabets are there in the series highlighted in BOLD  in the above arrangement  each of which has as many letters between them(in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
A. None
B. 1
C. 2
D.3
E. more than 3
24. If all the vowels are dropped from the above arrangements, which of the following end of the twelfth from the left end of the above arrangement?
A. 3
B. @
C.E
D.9
E.D
25. Which of the following is second to the left of fourteenth from the left end of the above arrangement?
A. A
B.E
C. D
D.B
E.C
26. If all the digits are arranged in ascending order from left to right, while the other elements in the arrangement remain unchanged, which of the following will be fourteenth from the left end of the arrangement?
A. 2
B.5
C.3
D.7
E. none of the above
Directions:
Give answer (A) if only assumption I is implicit. Give answer (B) if only assumption II is implicit. Give answer (C) if either assumption I or assumption II is Implicit.
Give answer (D) if neither assumption I nor assumption II is Implicit.
Give answer (E) if both assumptions I and II are Implicit. Directions (27-31):   In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumption and decide which of the assumption is implicit in the statement.

27. Statement: If parking space is not available in office, park your vehicles in the mall and walk to the office.
Assumption:
      1. The mall is at a walking distance from the office.
2   The office does not allow visitors vehicles in its premises.
28. Statement: Farmers must imme­diately switch over to organic fertilizers from chemical fertili­zers for better yield.
Assumption:
       1.  All the farmers use only chemical fertilizers.
       2.  Organic fertilizers are readily available to the farmers.
29. Statement: An advertisement by bank X ‘Our interest rates for education loans are lower than any other bank’.
Assumption:
       1.   Some other banks also provide education loans
       2.  Interest rates charged on education loans are different for different banks.
30.   Statement:   For any kind ofproblem with your mobile phone, contact our help dash immedi­ately.
Assumption:
       1.Help desk has a solution to all kinds of problems related to mobile phones or will guide accordingly.
       2.Unless the problem isreported immediately, it cannot be solved.
31. Statement: Use our medicine to fight the problem of obesity.
Assumption:
       1.  Other slimming medicines available in the market do not reduce weight.
       2.  Obesity cannot be controlled without medicines
       32. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
 (A) I
 (B) B
 (C) L
 (D) X
 (E) Y
33. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
 (A) Stem
 (B) Tree
 (C) Root
 (D) Branch
 (E) Leaf
 34. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word?
 (A) None
 (B) One
 (C) Two
 (D) Three
 (E) Four
 35. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.How is SLIT written in that code?
 (A) UTGR
 (B) UTKR
 (C) TUGR
 (D) RUGT
 (E) None of these
 36. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
 (A) Potato
 (B) Guava
 (C) Apple
 (D) Banana
 (E) None of these
 37. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement?
 (A) One
 (B) Two
 (C) Three
 (D) Four
 (E) None
 38. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement?
 (A) None
 (B) One
 (C) Two
 (D) Three
 (E) None of these
 39. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language?
 (A) 7&8*
 (B) &7*8
 (C) 7*&8
 (D) 7&*8
 (E) None of these
 40. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
 (A) None
 (B) One
 (C) Two
 (D) Three
 (E) More than three
 41. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language?
 (A) na
 (B) ka
 (C) bo
 (D) so
 (E) None of these
Direction (42-46): Study the following information carefully and answer the question s carefully
            A, B, C, D, E, G and H are sitting in a circle facing at the centre. D is second to the left of F and third to the right of H.A is second to the right of F and an immediate neighbour of H. C is second to the right of B and F is third to the right of B.G is not an immediate neighbour of F.
 42) Who is to the immediate left of A?
A) H
B) E
C) G
D) Data inadequate
E) None of these
 43) Who is fourth to the right of B?
A) E
B) C
C) A
D) Data inadequate
E) None of these
 44) What is E’s position with respect to G?
A) Second to the Right
B) Third to the Left
C) Third to the Right
D) Second to the left
E) None of these
 45) How many of them are there between H and C?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Two or Three
D) Data inadequate
E) None of these
 46) In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate left to the second person?
A) CD
B) BG
C) HA
D) FC
E) None of these
 Directions—(Q. 47–50) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow:
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’
 47. Which of the following means P is grandson of S?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
 48. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
 49. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
 50. Which of the following means T is wife of P?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Answers
 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. D 11. E 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. D 16. A 17. A 18. A 19. C 20. A 21. C 22. C 23. C 24. E 25. E 26. B 27. A 28. B 29. E 30. E 31. D 32. B 33. B 34. D 35. E 36. D 37. D 38. C 39. D 40. E 41. A 42. B 43. A 44. B 45. B 46. E 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. E

English language questions for IBPS exam 2013-14

English Language Questions

Directions (1 -15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
 As the price of gasoline spiked to record highs in 2007 and 2008, interest in alternatives to fossil fuels, and electric transportation in particular, also spiked. It raised however, many questions about the true environmental impact of electric cars. The electric car is being upheld as an ethical, green, nifty and cheap alternative to the carbon dioxide-emitting automobiles clogging city roads around the world today. Though electric cars are not a popular choice, the industry’s future plans are riding high on the hope that on improving certain factors, (which are currently deficient) such, as, effective marketing, a growing public awareness of the need for clean air and the increase in demand, the prices would eventually be driven down.
However, battery powered vehicles may still fail to completely replace liquid fuel-fed ones but with more electric and hybrid vehicles on the road, there is greater scope for makeover in the way environment is impacted by the automobiles. However, if the power to charge the battery-operated vehicle is to be sourced from grids using conventional coal-fired power plants, the electric car wouldn’t really be all that green. These would actually cause an increase in demand on the power plant’s energy production causing them to produce more power and thus more pollution, unless greener ways of energy production are used. But as of now the bulk of the electricity used to charge the batteries of electric vehicles is generated by fossil fuel burning power stations and only 12% by the clean methods. Also the amount of energy used by coal fired power stations to create the electricity to recharge electric vehicles makes them half as efficient as diesel cars. Recent studies indicate that carbon emissions may reduce only by an insignificant level even if there is a sudden Surge in demand for electric cars.
Other factors making the rechargeable cars less include the amount of electricity lost in the journey between the coal fired power stations which generate it and the point where it recharges the car, and the energy lost by the faulty first-generation batteries and motors. The researchers calculated that of the energy burned in a power station, only a quarter reaches an electric car after leakages and losses along the supply chain, giving the vehicle an energy efficiency score of 24%. These amounts to more than 75% energy loss much before the car is even put on ignition: A modern diesel engine, by contrast, achieves 45% efficiency. This suggests that if fossil fuels are to be burned, it is much more efficient to do it within the engine of a vehicle rather than at a power station’ and then try to send it via the National Grid, where a lot of energy is wasted, and finally to store it in a battery which in itself might leak power.
Electric cars may still survive since the cars emissions would be far · less polluting than those that run on fossil fuels. ‘With very minor emissions of sulfur caused when the batteries charge and discharge, when compared to current emissions standards, electric cars are zero emissions.
The gasoline engine by comparison does not fare as well. Gasoline and diesel fuel burned in internal combustion engines for transportation-account for 54 percent of nitrites of oxygen, 89 percent of carbon monoxide and 28 percent of carbon dioxide pollution produced. Switching to electric vehicles drops those percentages to zero, and only slightly increases sulfur emissions. So even when the power plants burn dirty fuel, the amount of pollution is less than an oil burning car would create. And this picture is improving all the time, as clean energy sources are added to the grid.
The goal should be to make more electric cars with greater incentives for consumers and producers, as well as feeding grids with more power from renewable resources as per the objectives stated in the numerous plans on Climate Change. And till this goal is achieved, the debate whether controlling emission at a few power plants is more convenient than controlling emission at millions of tailpipes is, would continue.

1. Why does the author fear that the electric cars may eventually not be very Eco-friendly?

a) The exhausts of these cars emit as much pollutions as the oil fueled cars.
b) Electric cars though have lesser quantity of other emissions, the sulfur emissions will rise substantially, thus harming the environment.
c) The electricity for charging the batteries of these cars comes from power plants using pollution causing fossil fuels.
d) Only a) and c)
e) None of these

2. What according to the author, needs to be done in order to make the electric cars more Eco friendly?

a) Encouraging power plants to generate electricity using the Eco-friendly methods.
b) Setting certain emissions standards for electric cars is done for the oil consuming cars.
c) Controlling sulfur emissions which are one of the major contributors to environmental pollution at present.
d) Making, provisions for easy availability of recharging sockets at all the places.
e) None of these

3. Which of the following suggestions does the author make in order to popularize the electric cars?

a) Discontinue the use of fuel powered cars completely.
b) Optimize the benefits of using electric cars to both consumers as well as the producers.
c) To supply grids with renewable sources of energy for the production of electricity.
d) Only b) and c)
e) None of these

4. Why, according to the author, are electric cars not a popular option among the people?

(A) The recharging points are not easily available everywhere.
(B) Effective marketing of the Eco-friendly cars has been lacking.
(C) Lack of appreciation among the people for the need of unpolluted air.
a) Only A and C
b) Only B and C
c) Only A and B
d) All A, B and C
e) None of these

5. Why, according to the author, may the electric cars survive despite all their current deficiencies?

(A) Electric cars will by subsidized and this world prove to be cost efficient
(B) An increasing number of grids are shifting to alternate forms of energy production.
(C) In the future, incentives would be provided to those driving electric cars.
(D) Pollution caused by the electric cars is far less as compared to the fossil fuel driven cars.
a) Only A
b) Only C and D
c) Only B and D
d) Only A and 8
e) None of these

6. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the given passage?

a) The failure of the power grids.
b) The rise and fall of cars using fossil fuels.
c) The adverse effects of pollution caused by the power grids.
d) The growing popularity of the electric cars.
e) Why Eco-friendliness of electric cars is a fiction at present.

7. Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?

a) Electric cars may completely replace the fossil fuel powered cars one day.
b) Electric cars have brought about a drastic improvement in the pollution levels at present.
c) Electric cars have universally been accepted as the environment friendly cars.
d) All a), b) and c) are true.
e) None of these

8. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in context of the given passage?

a) Nearly three-fourth of the total energy generated for powering electric cars is wasted.
b) The interest in electric cars increased during the last year when most of the power grids shifted to clean sources of fuel.
c) Electric car engines do not produce any carbon emissions.
d) There would not be any noticeable improvement in the pollution level if the oil burning cars are shifted to electric cars at present.
e) None of these

9. Why, according to the author, is the efficiency of the electric cars low even to the buyers before they actually hit the roads?

(A) A lot of energy is lost during the transit of electricity from the grid to the recharge point.
(B) The manufacturing cost of the electric cars is much higher than that of the other cars.
(C) The batteries and the motors of the electric cars are still relatively new and waste a lot of power.
a) Only A and C
b) Only B and C
c) Only B
d) Only A and B
e) None of these

Directions (10-12): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

10. PICTURE

a) Situation
b) Photograph
c) Representation
d) Art work
e) Idea

11. FEEDING

a) Eating
b) Supplying
c) Consuming
d) Encouraging
e) Nourishing

12. SURGE

a) Alteration
b) Modification
c) Intensification
d) Increase
e) Evolution

Directions (13-15): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. SLIGHTLY

a) Adequately
b) Miserly
c) Certainly
d) Remotely
e) Substantially

14. SWITCHING

a) Prolonging
b) Withdrawing
c) Continuing
d) Exchanging
e) Alternating

15. INCENTIVES

a) Deterrents
b) Preventions
c) Disadvantages
d) Prohibitions
e) Liability

Directions (16-25): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that-part will be the answer. If there is no error, mark
e) As the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. Sheela had to travel all the way back

a) / when she remembered that
b) / she had forgot to take
c) / important document with her.
d) / No error
e)

17. The party is holding a meeting

a) / in order to begin the
b) / painful and difficult process
c) / of rethink its political strategy.
d) / No error
e)

18. The only bad thing about

a) / these flowers are the
b) / pollen which causes
c) / allergy in many people.
d) / No error
e)

19. Nobody in the bus

a) / offered to give their seat
b) / to the elderly lady who had to
c) / travel a long distance.
d) /No error
e)

20. This is the only organization

a) / which could somehow continue
b) / to making profits
c) / in the face of recession.
d) /No error
e)

21. Many more would have died

a) / if they hadn’t received
b) / the timely helping from
c) / the relief team.
d) / No error
e)

22. A man along with

a) / his wife and two children
b) / was rescued with the help
c) / of an army helicopter.
d) /No error
e)

23. In the past two decades,

a) / preventive measures have
b) / drastically reduced the
c) / occurrence of polio in children.
d) / No error
e)

24. Neither the ministers

a) / nor the intelligence sources
b) / was aware of the coup
c) / being planned in the country.
d) / No error
e)

25. Certain amounts of stress

a) /at work is natural but
b)/ it is important that one learns
c) / to keep it in the right proportion.
d) / No error
e)

Directions (26-30): Which of the phrases
a), b), c) and d) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘no correction is required, mark
e) as the answer.

26. An NQO is working towards providing free education to the girl child so that every girl can stand on their own feet.

a) Stands on their own
b) Stand on her own
c) Stand in her own
d) Stand on their owns
e) No correction required

27. The animal rescuers anesthetized the dog which had been with great pain after having met with an accident?

a) Which had been in
b) Which is being with
c) Who had been in
d) Who has been at
e) No correction required

28. In its final decision, the court ruled that all the allegations leveled for the accused were false and baseless.

a) Allegation leveled against the
b) Allegations level against that
c) Allegations leveled against the
d) Allegation leveled with that
e) No correction required

29. If I leave early from home, I could have made it on time to the airport.

a) If I would leave early
b) Had I leave earlier
c) If I could left early
d)Had I left earlier
e) No correction required

30. Thousands of fire-fighters were deployed at the factory when a fire suddenly broke out due to a short circuit.

a) On the factory when
b) At the factory while
c) At that factory when
d) In the factory while
e) No correction required

Directions (31-35) : Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow.

(A) This decision on which force is to be maximized lies with every individual.
(B) This belief comes from the fact that science reflects the social forces prevailing at a particular time.
(C) We must maximize the constructive forces of science and the destructive ones should be minimized.
(D) Contrary to popular belief, the greatest enemy of mankind is not science but war.
(E) She/he must understand that science can only help us in providing ways to reach at either war or peace and is actually not responsible for causing these.
(F)During peaceful times science is constructive and during war, science is perverted to destructive ends.

31. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH (LAST) after re arrangement?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

32. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement?

a) A
b) E
c) F
d) D
e) C

33. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E
e) F

34. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

35. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement?

a) A
b) B
c) D
d) E
e) F

Directions (36-45): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

Asteroids are rocks and debris which are leftovers of the construction of our solar system. Most are in a belt, which (36) between Mars and Jupiter. However the gravitational influence of the giant planets, like Jupiter, or an impact by a comet can knock these large rocks out of their orbit, thus hurling them (37) the Earth. Many bodies have struck Earth in the (38), and a widely accepted theory blames the impact of an asteroid for the extinction of dinosaurs about 65 million years ago. The scale of such a disaster can be understood by the example of a relatively small-size asteroid strike in Siberia in early 20th country which (39) more than half a million acres of forest. However, what relieves the common man of the (40) regarding asteroid impact is the fact that many scientific groups are dedicated towards tracking the asteroid paths and orbit all around the year. With advanced equipments and technology, they can predict any upcoming danger much in (41). According to them the chances of finding such an asteroid crossing Earth in this or the next five generation’s lifetime is only one in thousands. Even if such an asteroid is found out, there will be (42) of time to track it, measure its orbit precisely, and plan a system for (43) it from its orbit away from that of the Earth’s. There will be no great hurry, and no great panic. It would be a project for all the world’s nations to take part in. It could be a globally unifying event. Because it will be (44) long before it actually hits the Earth. It probably would take only a small measure such as chemical rockets, or perhaps an atomic explosion to divert it from a threatening path. Thus, in short, it can be said that though the impact would pose enormous risk to all living forms on Earth, the odds of it occurring within our lifetimes is very (45) and it is unnecessary to run around believing that the sky is falling.

36.
a) Rotates
b) Appears
c) Strikes
d) Encircles
e) Exists

37.
a) past
b) Around
c) Towards
d) Against
e) Inside

38.
a) Future
b) Centuries
c) Earliest
d) Past
e) History

39.
a) Extinct
b) Devastated
c) Wasted
d) Shriveled
e) Fell

40.
a) Apprehension
b) Expectation
c) Distrust
d) Sufferings
e) Hesitation

41.
a) Sooner
b) Accuracy
c) Advance
d) Time
e) Distance

42.
a) dearth
b) Loss
c) Most
d) Lack
e) Plenty

43.
a) Blocking
b) Deflecting
c) Avoiding
d) Destroying
e) Changing

44.
a) Experienced
b) Harmful
c) Perceived
d) Noticed
e) Devastating

45.
a) Low
d) Noticed
c) Narrow
d) high
e) Few


Directions (46-50): Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted-. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

46. After having been friends for more than a decade, they had a ___________ last year and have not ___________each other ever since.

a) Fight, talked
b) Argument, met
c) Dispute, seen
d) Quarrel, admired
e) difference, introduced

47. The workers, several of___________ had complained about their low wages earlier have now ___________ to move the court for the labour rights.

a) Who, indicated
b) Whom, decided
c) Which, threatened
d) Them, resolved
e) Number, warned

48. The huntsmen dwellers were jubilant when the government ___________ an apartment to each of them at ___________ rates.

a) Demolished, fast
b) Announced, less
c) Provided, high
d) Acquired, low
e) promised, subsidized

49. The organization was deeply___________ by difficulties a decade ago but the new CEO brought many ___________ changes in it and took it to a new high.

a)indebted, necessary
b) plagued, vital
c) Coping, more
d) Hurt, critical
e) Shaken, inevitable

50. The prime minister who is ___________ in his holiday home at the moment said that he was very ___________ by the news of India winning the world cup.

a) visiting, happy
b) Residing, obliged
c) Intruding, dejected
d) Staying, pleased
e) resting, cheerful
 Answers
Q.1 C Q.2 A Q.3 D Q.4 B Q.5 C Q.6 E Q.7 A Q.8 D Q.9 D Q.10 A Q.11 B Q.12 D Q.13 E

Q.14 B Q.15 C Q.16 D Q.17 D Q.18 B Q.19 B Q.20 C Q.21 C Q.22 C Q.23 E Q.24 C Q.25 A

Q.26 B Q.27 A Q.28 C Q.29 D Q.30 E Q.31 E Q.32 A Q.33 E Q.34 D Q.35 B Q.36 A Q.37 C

Q.38 D Q.39 B Q.40 A Q.41 C Q.42 E Q.43 B Q.44 C Q.45 A Q.46 C Q.47 D Q.48 E Q.49 B

Q.50 B


General awareness questions for IBPS exam 2013-14

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